[Apr-2026] CompTIA CS0-003 Exam: Basic Questions With Answers
New 2026 Realistic Free CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Dump Questions and Answer
The CySA+ certification is designed for IT professionals who have experience in the field of cybersecurity and want to take their skills to the next level. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is vendor-neutral, meaning that it is not tied to any specific technology or product. This makes it a valuable certification for professionals who want to work in a variety of environments and with different technologies. The CySA+ certification is also recognized by the Department of Defense (DoD) as meeting the requirements for the Information Assurance Technical (IAT) Level II and III and the Information Assurance Management (IAM) Level I and II categories.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A user's computer is performing slower than the day before, and unexpected windows continually open and close. The user did not install any new programs, and after the user restarted the desktop, the issue was not resolved. Which of the following incident response actions should be taken next?
- A. Reformat and reimage the OS.
- B. Contain the device and implement a legal hold.
- C. Disconnect from the network and leave the PC turned on.
- D. Restart in safe mode and start a virus scan.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The symptoms suggest that the computer may be compromised, potentially with malware or unauthorized remote access. The first step in incident response is containment to prevent further spread or damage. Disconnecting the device from the network isolates it, preventing the attacker from continuing operations or accessing additional systems. Leaving the PC turned on preserves volatile data (e.g., memory contents, active connections) that may be critical for forensic analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following best describe the external requirements that are imposed for incident management communication? (Choose two).
- A. Industry advocacy group participation
- B. Transparency to stockholders
- C. Law enforcement involvement
- D. Compliance with regulatory requirements
- E. Defined SLAs regarding services
- F. Framework guidelines
Answer: D,F
NEW QUESTION # 135
A consultant evaluating multiple threat intelligence leads to assess potential risks for a client.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for the consultant to consider when modeling the client's attack surface?
- A. Meet with the senior management team to determine if funding is available for recommended solutions.
- B. Look at attacks against similar industry peers and assess the probability of the same attacks happening.
- C. Discuss potential tools the client can purchase lo reduce the livelihood of an attack.
- D. Ask for external scans from industry peers, look at the open ports, and compare Information with the client.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Asking scans from other companies would reveal their vulnerabilities and impossible to get.
NEW QUESTION # 136
A company brings in a consultant to make improvements to its website. After the consultant leaves. a web developer notices unusual activity on the website and submits a suspicious file containing the following code to the security team:
Which of the following did the consultant do?
- A. Implemented clickjacking
- B. Implanted a backdoor
- C. Implemented privilege escalation
- D. Patched the web server
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Implanted a backdoor.
A backdoor is a method that allows an unauthorized user to access a system or network without the permission or knowledge of the owner. A backdoor can be installed by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by physically modifying the hardware or firmware of the device. A backdoor can be used for various malicious purposes, such as stealing data, installing malware, executing commands, or taking control of the system.
In this case, the consultant implanted a backdoor in the website by using an HTML and PHP code snippet that displays an image of a shutdown button and an alert message that says "Exit". However, the code also echoes the remote address of the server, which means that it sends the IP address of the visitor to the attacker. This way, the attacker can identify and target the visitors of the website and use their IP addresses to launch further attacks or gain access to their devices.
The code snippet is an example of a clickjacking attack, which is a type of interface-based attack that tricks a user into clicking on a hidden or disguised element on a webpage. However, clickjacking is not the main goal of the consultant, but rather a means to implant the backdoor. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
Option B is also incorrect because privilege escalation is an attack technique that allows an attacker to gain higher or more permissions than they are supposed to have on a system or network. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by abusing misconfigurations or weak access controls. However, there is no evidence that the consultant implemented privilege escalation on the website or gained any elevated privileges.
Option D is also incorrect because patching is a process of applying updates to software to fix errors, improve performance, or enhance security. Patching can prevent or mitigate various types of attacks, such as exploits, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks. However, there is no indication that the consultant patched the web server or improved its security in any way.
References:
* 1 What Is a Backdoor & How to Prevent Backdoor Attacks (2023)
* 2 What is Clickjacking? Tutorial & Examples | Web Security Academy
* 3 What Is Privilege Escalation and How It Relates to Web Security | Acunetix
* 4 What Is Patching? | Best Practices For Patch Management - cWatch Blog
NEW QUESTION # 137
During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?
- A. Shut down the affected server immediately
- B. Log in to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs
- C. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis
- D. Restore from the last known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis.
Cloning the virtual server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server's data and state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations.
NEW QUESTION # 138
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
Answer:
Explanation:
see the answer below in explanation
Explanation:
Answer below images
NEW QUESTION # 139
The architecture team has been given a mandate to reduce the triage time of phishing incidents by 20%. Which of the following solutions will most likely help with this effort?
- A. Create new correlation rules for the SIEM.
- B. Increase the budget to the security awareness program.
- C. Integrate a SOAR platform.
- D. Implement an EDR tool.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A SOAR platform automates repetitive steps in the phishing-triage workflow, such as extracting indicators, running reputation checks, and enriching alerts. This automation reduces manual effort and significantly shortens overall triage time.
NEW QUESTION # 140
An analyst is evaluating the following vulnerability report:
Which of the following vulnerability report sections provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs?
- A. Payloads
- B. Profile
- C. Metrics
- D. Vulnerability
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Metrics.
The Metrics section of the vulnerability report provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Metrics section contains the CVE dictionary entry and the CVSS base score of the vulnerability. CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures and it is a standardized system for identifying and naming vulnerabilities. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System and it is a standardized system for measuring and rating the severity of vulnerabilities.
The CVSS base score is a numerical value between 0 and 10 that reflects the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability, such as its exploitability, impact, and scope. The CVSS base score is composed of three metric groups: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Base metric group consists of six metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, Scope, and Impact. The Impact metric measures the effect of a vulnerability on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the affected resources.
In this case, the CVSS base score of the vulnerability is 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The Impact metric of the CVSS base score is 6.0, which indicates a high impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, the Metrics section provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs.
The other sections of the vulnerability report do not provide information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Payloads section contains links to request and response payloads that demonstrate how the vulnerability can be exploited. The Payloads section can help an analyst to understand how the attack works, but it does not provide a quantitative measure of the impact. The Vulnerability section contains information about the type, group, and description of the vulnerability. The Vulnerability section can help an analyst to identify and classify the vulnerability, but it does not provide a numerical value of the impact. The Profile section contains information about the authentication, times viewed, and aggressiveness of the vulnerability. The Profile section can help an analyst to assess the risk and priority of the vulnerability, but it does not provide a specific measure of the impact on data confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 141
A security analyst is validating a particular finding that was reported in a web application vulnerability scan to make sure it is not a false positive. The security analyst uses the snippet below:
Which of the following vulnerability types is the security analyst validating?
- A. SSRF
- B. Directory traversal
- C. XSS
- D. XXE
Answer: C
Explanation:
XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website.
XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application's processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official References:
https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe
https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf
https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.htm
NEW QUESTION # 142
A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:
Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?
- A. PBleach:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: No
Smear: No
Channing: Yes - B. TSpirit:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: Yes
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - C. ENameless:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - D. InLoud:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: Yes
Channing: No
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.
NEW QUESTION # 143
A security analyst must preserve a system hard drive that was involved in a litigation request Which of the following is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified?
- A. Protect the device with a complex password.
- B. Encrypt the device to ensure confidentiality of the data.
- C. Generate a hash value and make a backup image.
- D. Perform a memory scan dump to collect residual data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Generating a hash value and making a backup image is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified, as it creates a verifiable copy of the original data that can be used for forensic analysis. Encrypting the device, protecting it with a password, or performing a memory scan dump do not prevent the data from being altered or deleted. Verified Reference: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide, page 3291
NEW QUESTION # 144
A security analyst is validating a particular finding that was reported in a web application vulnerability scan to make sure it is not a false positive. The security analyst uses the snippet below:
Which of the following vulnerability types is the security analyst validating?
- A. SSRF
- B. Directory traversal
- C. XSS
- D. XXE
Answer: C
Explanation:
XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website.
XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application's processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official References:
* https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe
* https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf
* https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.htm
NEW QUESTION # 145
During the rollout of a patch to the production environment, it was discovered that required connections to remote systems are no longer possible. Which of the following steps would have most likely revealed this gap?
- A. User acceptance testing
- B. Implementation
- C. Rollback
- D. Validation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Validation involves testing the patch to ensure it functions as intended and doesn't introduce new vulnerabilities or problems. This step would have included testing the connectivity to remote systems, which would have identified the issue. Closest other option could be B, but UAT is tailored towards determining if a given solution will meet the need that the application is being brought on board to fulfill.
NEW QUESTION # 146
SIMULATION
An organization's website was maliciously altered.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review information in each tab to select the source IP the analyst should be concerned about, the indicator of compromise, and the two appropriate corrective actions.
Answer:
Explanation:
see the explanation for step by step solution.
Explanation:
Step 1: Analyzing the SFTP Log
The SFTP log provides a record of file transfer and login activities:
User "sjames" logged in from several IP addresses:
192.168.10.32 and 192.168.10.37 (internal network IPs)
32.111.16.37 and 41.21.18.102 (external IPs)
We see file alterations in the /var/www directory, which is commonly the web directory.
Modified files: about_us.html, index.html
Suspicious activity:
192.168.11.102 and 41.21.18.102 modified the files.
32.111.16.37 had failed login attempts, indicating possible unauthorized access attempts.
The most suspicious IP here is 41.21.18.102, as it's associated with direct file modifications, possibly indicating unauthorized access.
Step 2: Reviewing Netstat
The netstat output shows active connections and their states:
IP 41.21.18.102 has an ESTABLISHED connection with port 22, commonly used for SFTP.
IP 32.111.16.37 is also attempting connections, and 32.111.16.37 connections are in a TIME_WAIT state, showing prior connections were recently closed.
The netstat output reaffirms 41.21.18.102 is actively connected and potentially involved in malicious activities.
Step 3: Checking the HTTP Access Log
The HTTP Access log shows access to about_us.html:
32.111.16.37 repeatedly accessed /about_us.html with 404 errors, indicating attempts to reach non-existing pages.
41.21.18.102 accessed the 200 status code, showing successful page requests, but since this IP was modifying files directly on the server, it might be testing or verifying changes.
Again, 41.21.18.102 stands out as it matches both successful file modification and page request patterns, while 32.111.16.37 shows unsuccessful attempts.
Step 4: Selecting the IP of Concern
Based on the above analysis:
Step 5: Identifying the Indicator of Compromise
Potential indicators include unauthorized file modifications:
Modified index.html file is the correct answer, as it indicates direct changes to website content and is often a clear sign of compromise.
Step 6: Selecting Corrective Actions
To mitigate and prevent further compromise:
Change the password on the "sjames" account: The account was used across various IPs, indicating potential account compromise.
Block external SFTP access: Restricting SFTP to internal IPs only would prevent unauthorized external modifications. Since 41.21.18.102 was external, this would stop similar threats.
Summary
IP of Concern: 41.21.18.102
Indicator of Compromise: Modified index.html file
Corrective Actions:
Change the password on the sjames account
Block external SFTP access
These selections address both the immediate security breach and implement a preventative measure against future unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION # 147
A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data:
Which of the following should be remediated first?
- A. SQL injection
- B. RFI
- C. Code injection
- D. XSS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which of the following techniques can help a SOC team to reduce the number of alerts related to the internal security activities that the analysts have to triage?
- A. Filter all alarms in the SIEM with low severity.
- B. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications.
- C. Enrich the SIEM-ingested data to include all data required for triage.
- D. Schedule a task to disable alerting when vulnerability scans are executing.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 149
A security analyst reviews the following extract of a vulnerability scan that was performed against the web server:
Which of the following recommendations should the security analyst provide to harden the web server?
- A. Delete the /wp-login.php folder.
- B. Disable tcp_wrappers.
- C. Close port 22.
- D. Remove the version information on http-server-header.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which of the following best describes the key goal of the containment stage of an incident response process?
- A. To communicate goals and objectives of theincidentresponse plan
- B. To get services back up and running
- C. To prevent data follow-on actions by adversary exfiltration
- D. To limit further damage from occurring
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 151
A security audit for unsecured network services was conducted, and the following output was generated:
Which of the following services should the security team investigate further? (Select two).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1 The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.
Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team:
port 23 and port 636.
Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution.
Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23 Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.
Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362
NEW QUESTION # 152
The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daffy automated external device scan report shows server vulnerabilities that are failure items according to PCI DSS.
If the venerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean.
If the venerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding.
After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to complete the simulation by selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options.
INTRUCTIONS:
The simulation includes 2 steps.
Step1:Review the information provided in the network diagram and then move to the STEP 2 tab.
STEP 2: Given the Scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 153
A security analyst performs various types of vulnerability scans. Review the vulnerability scan results to determine the type of scan that was executed and if a false positive occurred for each device.
Instructions:
Select the Results Generated drop-down option to determine if the results were generated from a credentialed scan, non-credentialed scan, or a compliance scan.
For ONLY the credentialed and non-credentialed scans, evaluate the results for false positives and check the findings that display false positives. NOTE: If you would like to uncheck an option that is currently selected, click on the option a second time.
Lastly, based on the vulnerability scan results, identify the type of Server by dragging the Server to the results.
The Linux Web Server, File-Print Server and Directory Server are draggable.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 154
A company has the following security requirements:
- No public IPs
- All data secured at rest
- No insecure ports/protocols
After a cloud scan is completed a security analyst receives reports that several misconfigurations are putting the company at risk. Given the following cloud scanner output:
Which of the following should the analyst recommend be updated first to meet the security requirements and reduce risks?
- A. VM_DEV_Web02
- B. VM_PRD_DB
- C. VM_PRD_Web01
- D. VM_DEV_DB
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 155
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